BSNL Direct Recruitment of TTA Solved Paper 2013

Direct Recruitment Examination of TTA  [ Kerala Circle]   July 2013

Max Marks 200                                                                    Time Allowed 3 Hours

I General Ability Test [20 Questions of each Mark]

II Basic Engineering [90 Questions of each Mark]

III Specialization [90 Questions of each Mark]

·        Candidates have to answer all Questions

·        There will be negative marking. For each wrong answer 25% of the mark of that question will be deducted.

11.     The smallest number  which when divided by 20,25,35 and 40 leaves remainders as of 14,19,29 and 34 respectively is:

a.      1394   b) 1404           c) 1664           d) 1406

22.      Raju reads 3/5 of a book. He finds that there are still 80 pages left to be read. Total number of pages in the book are:

a.      100     b. 200             c. 300             4. 400

33.   Indian cricket team won 4 more matches than it lost with Australia. If it won 3/5 of its matches, how many matches did India play?

a.      8          b. 12   c. 16    d. 20

44.      A man pays 40 times the annual rent to purchase a building. The rate % per annum he derives from his investment is:

a.      25%    b. 2.5%                      c. 4%              d. 5%

55.      The cost of 3 pens, 4 rulers and 5 erasers is Rs. 75 while that of 10 erasers, 6 pens and 7 rulers is Rs 138, find the cost of 3 pens, 1 ruler and 5 erasers.

a.      Rs.39             b. Rs.42                      c. Rs 44                      d. Cannot be found

66.     If a:b=3:7, find the value of (5a+b) : (4a+5b)

a.      15:44  b. 22:35          c. 15:49                      d. 22:47

77.    A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B in 30 days. A starts the work and worked for 6 days. Then B completed the remaining part of the work. In how many days was the work completed?

a.      24        b.27    c. 32    d. 34

88. A train covered a distance of 250 km, partly at an average speed of 40 km/hr and partly at 60 km/hr. Find the distance covered at 40 km/hr if it took 5 hours to cover the distance.

a.      150km            b.120km         c.100km        d.  cannot be found

99.     For which of the following disciplines is Nobel Prize awarded?

a.      Physical and Chemistry        b. Physiology or Medicine c. Literature, Peace and Electronics             d. All of the Above

110. Which is the least populated state in the Indian Union?

a.      Arunachal Pradesh            b. Goa C. Meghalaya d. Sikkim

111. The highest Indian decoration for showing valour and gallantry in the war is

a.      Param Vishishta Seva Medal          b. Ashoka Chakra     C. Paramveer Chakra        d. Mahaveer Chakra

112. Through which states does the river Chambal flow?

a.      UP, MP and Rajasthan      b. MP, Gujarat and UP c. Rajasthan, MP and Bihar         d. Gujarat, Haryana and UP

113. Where is the Headquarters of World Trade Organization (WTO) situated?

a.      Geneva          b. Paris                       c. Washington DC     d. Nairobi

114. What is the currency of China?

a.      Yen      b. Chinese Dollar      c. Yuan          d. Baht

15. Select the choice that provides the best meaning of the word “monetary”

a.      Fiscal             b. Stationary  c. Scrupulous d. boring

16. Select the choice that provides the best meaning of the word “ Nascent”

a.      Loyal   b. treacherous           c. unnamed    d. incipient

17. Select the choice that provides the best meaning of the word “Chaste”

a.      Curf     b. Pure                       c. Outspoken             d. loyal

18. Select the choice that provides the opposite meaning of the word “deter”

a.      Encourage   b. differ                       C. postpone   d. prorogue

19. Select the most effective word from the choice to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

                 Ram agreed to ………………….. my orders

A. Carry away            b. Carry on     c. carry out   d. carry off

20. Select the most effective word from choice to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

                        If a speech is full of pompous, it is ………………….

                 A. verbose            b. grandiose  c. bombastic  d. grandiloquent

Part II

1. Which of the following is conserved when light waves interfere with each other?
1. Energy                      b. Intensity      c. Amplitude               d. Momentum
2. When n resistances each of value r are connected in parallel, then resultant resistance is x. When these n resistances are connected in series, total resistance is
1. nx        b. rnx   c. x/n   d. n²x 
3. Two bulbs marked 200 watt-250 volts and 100 watt-250 volts are joined in series to 250 volts supply. Power consumed in circuit is
1. 33 watt                        b.67watt        c. 100 watt     d. 300 watt
4. Which of the following capacitors is polarized?
1. Mica    b. Ceramic     c. Plastic film d. Electrolytic
5. A 4.7 M W resistor is in series with a 0.015 mF capacitor. The combination is across a 12 V source. How long does it take the capacitor to fully charge?
1. 35 ms b. 352 ms      c. 3.5s d. 70.5 ms
6. A sine wave voltage is applied across a capacitor. When the frequency of the voltage is decreased, the current
1. Increases       b. remains constant  c. Decreases d. ceases
7. Three 10 KW resistors are connected in series. A 20kW resistor is connected in parallel across one of the 10kW resistors. The voltage source is 24 V. the total current in the circuit is
1. 900 mA           b. 9mA            c. 90 mA         d. 800 mA
8. A certain circuit is composed of two parallel resistors. The total resistance is 1,403W. One of the resistors is 2W. The other resistor value is
1. A. 1,403W                  b. 4.7 kW        c. 2 kW                        d. 3,403 W
9. A 33W half-watt resistor and a 330W half-watt resistor are connected across a 12 V source. Which one(s) will overheat?
1. 33W    b. 330W          c. both resistors         d. neither resistor
10. A certain appliance uses 350 w. If it is allowed to run continuously for 24 days, how many kilowatt-hours of energy does it consume?
1. 20.16 kWh     b. 201.6 kWh  c. 2.01kWh     d. 8.4 kWh
11. A Power supply produces a 0.6 W output with an input of 0.7 W . Its percentage of efficiency is
1. 8.57%             b. 42.85%      c. 4.28%         d. 85.7%
12. A 6V battery is connected to a 300W load. Under these conditions, it is rated at 40 Ah. How long can it supply current to the load?
1. 1 hr      b. 200 hrs       c. 2000 hrs    d. 10 hrs
13. Doppler shift in frequency does not depend on
1. The speed of the observer
2. The speed of the source
3. The relative speed of the observer with respect to source
4. The distance between the source and the observer
14. The amplitude of light wave at a distance x is A. At a point distant 3x from the source, the amplitude would be
1. 9A       b. 3A   c. A/3  d. A/9
15. Korchoff’s laws are not applicable to circuits with
1. Distributed parameters                
2. lumped parameters
3. passive elements
4. non-linear resistances
16. Cells are connected in series in order to increase
1. Current capacity       
2. Life of the cells
3. Voltage rating
4. Terminal voltage
17. In lead acid batteries
1. The electrolyte is weak sulphuric acid
2. The number of plates is always odd
3. The number of negative plates is one more than the number of positive plates
4. All of the above
18. The rating of fuse wire is always expressed in
1. Volts   b. amperes    c. ampere volts                    d. ampere hours
19. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends upon
1. Current rating          b. voltage rating         c. both A. and B.        d. none of these
20. When two cells are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that they have
1. Identical internal resistances           b. equal emfs           c. same make            d. same ampere-hour capacity
21. Which cannot be calculated using the principle of conservation of energy?
1. The energy of a proton at rest
2. The production of back emf in a motor
3. Voltage transformation in an ideal transformer
4. The escape velocity of an object from the gravitational field of a planet
22. Why does superconductivity acquire in certain materials at low temperatures
1. At low temperatures there are no lattice vibrations
2. Some pairs of electrons experience net attractions at low temperatures
3. The materials allow loose resistance at low temperatures
4. At low temperatures the materials become magnetic and this reduces the scattering of electron pairs
23. Specific resistance is measured in
1. Mho     b. ohm                        c. ohm-cm     d. ohm/cm
24. The equation of alternating current is i=42.4 sin 628t. Then the average value of current is
1. 42.42A                       b. 27A             c. 38A             d. 22A

25. Which of the following case represents the largest mmf?
1. A 20 turn coil wound around a 10cm iron core and passing a current of 3A
2. A 60 turn coil wound a 10cm iron core and passing a current of 1 A
3. A 100 turn coil wound a 10cm iron core and passing a current of 0.75A
4. A 50 turn coil wound a 10cm iron core and passing a current of 0.75A

26. The slope of line perpendicular to 2x+y=0 is
1. ½         b. -1/2 c. 2                  d. -2
27. The line passing through (2,3) and (3,2) is
1. X+y-5=0         b. x-y-1=0       c. x+y+1=0     d. x-y+1=0
28. Equation of circle passing through origin and center(a,0) on x axis with radius ‘a’ is
1. (x-a)² + y2 =a²            b. x²-y²-2ax=0            c. both A and B       d. neither of above
29. The angle made by the line x-y+5 =0 with y-axis is
1. 30 degree      b. 45 degree c. 60 degree  d. 150 degree
30. The angle covered by a wheel in 3 sec, if it makes 200 revolutions in a minute, is
1. 10π     b. 15 π            c. 20 π            d. 30 π
31. If Ѳ=45⁰ =, then sec Ѳ cot Ѳ – cosec Ѳ tan Ѳ =
1. 0                      b. 2      c. √2    d. 2√2
32. Which of the following is not an example of a vector?
1. Displacement            b. Momentum c. Mass                      d. Angular velocity
33. The sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector. The magnitude of their difference is
1. 2          b. √3   c. √2    d. 1
34. Rank of the matrix         1        -2       3      is

                2         4       1

                                     1            2       7

                        a) 1                 b) 2                 c) 3                  d) none of these

       35.            Matrix A =       cos Ѳ        -sin Ѳ       is

                                                Sin Ѳ        cos Ѳ        

a) orthogonal matrix                      b) reciprocal matrix   c) transposed matrix d) second order non-linear  

       36.            Differential equation d2y / dx2  + sinx dy/dx + ye^x = sinhx is

A.     First order and linear     

B.     First order and non-linear

C.    Second order linear

D.    Second order non-linear

       37. Which of the following equations has the same graph as the line 3y-1.5 x = 0?

A.     Y=x/3               B. y=2x+3                   C. y=2x                       D. y=x/2

       38.            If y=x^x, x > 0, then dy/dx is

            A. log x                       B. 2+log x       C. X ^x log x     D. X ^x (1+log x)

           

       39.            d/dx (cos ^-1 x + sin ^-1 x) is equal to 

            A. π/2             B. 0     C. 2 π             D. None of these

       40. If √x + √y = 4 then dx/dy at y=1 is

            A. 3     B. -1    C. -3                D. none of these

              ^π/2

       41. ∫ ₀   sin 4 Ѳ / sin Ѳ  d Ѳ is equal to

            A. 2/3              B. 8/3              C. ¾                D. 4/3

                                   

                                      2

       42. The value of   ∫ ₀  (x -1) |x-1| dx is equal to

            A.-2/3  B. 4/3  C. 2/3  D. 0

    43.  If ω is a cube root of unity, then value of (1+ ω- ω²) (1- ω+ ω²) is

            A. 1     B. 0     C. 2                 D. 4

      44. The locus represented by | Z-1| = |Z+ i | = is

            A. Circle of radius 1  B. an ellipse with foci at (1,0) and (0,1)

            C. a straight line through the origin      D. a circle on the line joining (1,0), (0,1) as diameter

      45. If z is a complex number, then

            A. |Z²| >  |Z|²    B. . |Z²|=. |Z|² C.  |Z²| < . |Z|²              D. none of these

      46. Value of √I + √-I is

            A.0      B. +/- √2         C. –i √2          D. (-2+2i)

   47. What is the most significant development in electronics since World war II ?

            A. The development of LCD TV      B. The Development of the diode

            C. The Development of the transistor   D.The development of TRIAC

     48. Which material may also be considered a semiconductor element?

            A. Carbon     B. Ceramic    C. Mica                       D. Argon

     49. What can a semiconductor sense?

            A. Temperature                     B. Magnetism            C. Pressure   D. All of these

     50. The diffusion potential across a p-n junction

            A. Decreases with increasing doping concentration

            B. Increases with decreasing band gap

            C. Does not depend on doping concentrations

            D. Increases with increase in doping concentrations

     51. Forward bias of a silicon P-N junction will produce a barrier voltage of approximately how  many volts?

            A. 0.2  B. 0.3  C. 0.7  D. 0.8

     52. A P-N junction mimics a closed switch when it

            A. has a low junction resistance                        B. is reversed biased

            C. Cannot overcome its barrier voltage     D. Has a vide depletion region

     53. If conductance increases as temperature increases, this is known as a

            A. Positive coefficient           B. Negative current flow       C. Negative coefficient

            D. positive resistance

     54. Which statement best describes an insulator?

            A. a material with many free electrons        B. a material doped to have some free electrons             C. A Material with few free electrons          D. none of the above

     55. What electrical characteristic of intrinsic semiconductor material is controlled by

           The addition of impurities?

            A. Conductivity       B. Resistance            C. Power        D. All of the above

     56. A JFET

            A. Is a current controlled device                  B. Has a low input resistance

            C. Is a Voltage controlled device                       D. Is always forward biased

     57. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:

            A. Active region                     B. Breakdown region           

            C. Saturation and Cut off regions          D. Linear region

    58. A current ratio of I_C/I_E is usually less than one and is called:

            A. beta                        B. theta                       C. Alpha        D. Omega

    59. In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for:

            A. Stabilization                    B. ac signal bypass

            C. Collector bias                   D. higher gain

    60. A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a:

            a) Fixed resistor        b) tuning device                     c) rectifier       d) variable register

    61. In a class B Push-Pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above the cutoff to avoid

            a) Crossover distortion    b) Unusually high efficiency c) Negative feedback

            d) A low input impedance

    62. Often a common – collector will be the last stage before the load: the main function of this stage is to

            a) Provide voltage gain        b) Buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance loads     c) Provide phase inversion

            d) Provide a high frequency path to improve the frequency response

    63. The center frequency of a band pass filter is always equal to the

            a) Bandwidth b) -3dB Frequency

            c) Bandwidth divided by Q   d) Geometric average of the critical frequencies

    64. In an averaging amplifier, the input resistances are

            a) Equal to the feedback resistance           b) Less than the feedback resistance

            c) Greater than the feedback resistance          d) Unequal

    65. The ramp voltage at the output of an op-amp integrator

            a) increase or decreases at a linear rate                      b) increases or decreases at an exponential rate

            c) Is always increasing and never decreasing       d) is constant

    66. What is the minimum frequency at which a crystal will oscillate?

            a) Seventh harmonic b) third harmonic       c) fundamental        d) second harmonic

    67. Sinusoidal oscillators operate with

            a) Positive feedback                                  b) negative feedback           

c) Both positive and negative feedback     d) none

     68. Avalanche photodiodes are preferred over PIN diodes in optical communication

           Systems because of

            a) Speed of operation                      b) higher sensitivity  

c) Larger bandwidth              d) larger power handling capacity

     69. Very Large Scale Integration (VLSI)

            A) Refers to a small computer on a chip    b) cannot be applied to MOS systems

            c) Refers to IC’s with complexity below 100 gates d) does not require costly process facilities

     70. Avalanche breakdown results basically due to

            a) Impact ionization   b) strong electric field across the junction

            c) Emission of electrons   d) rise in temperatures

     71. An ideal power supply has

            a) Zero internal resistance           b) very large input resistance

            c) Very large output resistance        d) very low output resistance

     72. Higher order active filters used for variable

            a) Bandwidth b) gain in the pass band       c) impedence            d) roll-off rate

     73. Convert the octal number 17 to decimal

            a) 22   b) 23   c) 15   d) 34

     74. How many binary digits are required to count to 100 ₁₀ ?

            a) 5     b) 8     c) 7     d) 9

     75. A logic circuit that provides a HIGH output for both inputs HIGH or both inputs LOW is

            a) An EX-NOR gate                        b) an OR gate            c) an EX-OR gate     d) a NAND gate

     76. Parity systems are defined as either _________ or ___________ and will add an extra _______to the digital information being transmitted

            a) Positive, negative, byte    b) odd, even, bit

            c) Upper, lower, digit                        d) on, off, decimal

     77. One of De Morgan’s theorems states that X+Y = XY Simply stated, this means that logically there is no difference between

a.      a NOR and an AND gate with inverted inputs

b.      a NAND and OR gate with inverted inputs

c.      an AND and a NOR gate with inverted inputs

d.      a NOR and a NAND gate with inverted inputs

     78. How many gates would be required to implement the following Boolean expression before?

            Simplification? XY + (X+Z) + Y ( X+Z)

            a) 3     b) 4     c) 5      d) 6

     79. Use Boolean algebra to find the most simplified SOP expression for

            F=ABD+ CD + ACD + ABC + ABCD

            a) F=ABD+ABC+CD           b) F=CD+AD c) F=BC+AB  d) F=AC+AD

     80. The implementation of simplified sum-of-products expressions may be easily implemented into actual logic circuits using all Universal ________gates with little or no increase in circuit

             Complexity. (Select the response for the blank space that will BEST make the statement true)

            a) AND/OR    b) NAND        c) NOR                       d) OR/AND

      81. A logic probe is placed on the output of a gate and the display indicator is dim. A pulser is used on each of the input terminals, but the output indication does not change. What is wrong?

a.      The output of the GATE appears to be open

b.      The dim indication on the logic probe indicates that the supply voltage is probably low

c.      The dim indication is a result of a bad ground connection on the logic probe

d.      The gate may be a tristate device.

      82. How is a J-K flip-flop made to toggle?

            a) J=0, K=0    b) J=1, K=0    c) J=0, K=1    d) J=1, K=1

      83. On a master – slave flip-flop, when is the master enabled?

            a) When the gate is LOW     b) When the gate is HIGH

            c) Both of the above              d) neither of the above

      84. How can parallel data be taken out of a shift register simultaneously?

            a) Use the Q output of the first FF   b) Use the Q output of the last FF

            c) The all of the Q outputs together d) Use the Q output of each FF

      85. Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems encountered with asynchronous counters

             Because the:

a.      Input clock pulses are applied only to the first and last stages

b.      Input clock pulses are applied only to the last stage

c.      Input clock pulses are not used to activate any of the counter stage

d.     Input clock pulses are applied simultaneously to each stage

       86. The check sum method of testing a ROM :

a)     Indicates if the data in more than one memory location is incorrect

b)     Provides a means for locating and correcting data errors in specific memory locations

c)      Allows data errors to be pinpointed to a specific memory location

d)     Simply indicates that the contents of the ROM are incorrect

       87. Which of the following consumes minimum power?

            a)         TTL     b) CMOS        c) DTL            d) RTL

       88. How many select lines will a 31:1 multiplexer have?

            a) 5     b) 8     c) 9      d) 11

       89. Karnaugh map is use for the purpose of

a)     reducing the electronic circuits used

b)     to map the given Boolean logic function

c)     to minimize the terms in a Boolean expression

d)     to Maximize the terms in a Boolean expression

      90. Which of following requires refreshing?

a)     SRAM b) DRAM       c) ROM           d) EPROM

           

                                    

Part III

1. Wheatstone bridge method of resistance measurement is ideally suitable for the measurement of resistance values in the range
1. 0.001 ohm to 1 ohm              B. 0.1 ohm to 100 ohm      c. 100 ohm to 10 k-ohm       d. 100 k-ohm to 10 M ohm
2. The value of resistance of an earthing electrode depends upon
1. Shape and material of electrode b. depth to which electrode is driven into earth c. specific resistance of soil       D. All of the above
3. A dc motor can be easily identified by
1. Yoke   b. Size of the conductor                    c. Commutator        d. Winding
4. In a dc motor, the ratio of back emf to supply emf is an indication of its
1. Efficiency     b. speed regulation   c. starting torque       d. running torque
5. In case of Parallel operation of compound generators, for proper division of load from no load to full load, it is essential that
1. The regulation of each armature should be same
2.   their series field resistances should be equal 
3.  their ratings should be equal
4.  none of these
6. The frequency of voltage generated in an alternator depends on
1. Number of poles        b. speed of alternator           c. both A. and B.    d. type of winding
7. A 20 pole alternator rotates at 600 rpm. The periodic time of current in seconds per cycle is
1. A. 0.02            B. 0.01           C.0.005          D. 0.04
8. When an induction motor runs at rated load and speed, the iron losses are
1. Negligible     b. very heavy              c. independent of supply frequency d. independent of supply voltage
9. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by
1. 45  degree     B. 90 degree             C. 120 degree          D. 180 degree
10. The equation of a current given by i=I_m sin 2ωt. the frequency of the current in Hz is
1. ω/2π   2. ω/2 c. 2ω/π           d. ω/π
11. In  a ∆ - connected source feeding a Y-connected load
1. Each phase voltage equals the difference of the corresponding load voltages
2. Each phase voltage equals the  corresponding load voltage
3. Each phase voltage is one-third the  corresponding load voltage
4. Each phase voltage is 60⁰ out of phase with the corresponding load voltage
12. A single – phase sinusoidal voltage of 120 V is connected to a 90Ω load. Current in the circuit is
1. 13.3 mA         b. 133 mA      c. 1.33 A         d. 1.33 mA
13. The primary winding of a transformer has 110 V ac across it. What is the secondary voltage if the turns ratio is 8?
1. 8.8 V   b. 88V             c. 880V          d. 8888V
14. Slip of induction motor does not depends on
1. Rotor speed   b. synchronous speed c. shaft torque         d. core loss
15. In a synchronous motor, the inverted curve represent the relation between
1. Field current & Armature current     b. Armature current and Power Factor       c. Field current & Power Factor       d. none of these
16. In a transformer the coils of primary and secondary are placed concentrically to achieve
1. Reduced leakage flux between primary and secondary winding
2. Reduced copper losses in the winding
3. Reduced insulation cost of the windings
4. Reduced voltage per turn in the winding
17. What is the necessity of copper brushes in a dc motors?
1. To absorb the mechanical shocks produced during running condition
2. To convert alternating supply current to direct current
3. To increase the flux cutting by the rotor
4. None of these
18. Bulk oil circuit breaker is suitable for voltages up to
1. 4 kV    b. 10 kV                      c. 25 kV          d. 36 kV
19. Shunt reactors are connected with transmission lines for
1. Limiting fault current  b. limiting fault voltage          c. absorbing reactive power       d. absorbing high voltage surges
20. The advantage of grounding a power system is that
1. Earth fault current can be used to operate relays
2. “Arching ground” phenomenon is avoided
3. It provides symmetry to the line impedances
4. Both A) and B)
21. The SCR is turned-off when the anode current falls below
1. Forward current rating          b. break over voltage            c. holding current   d. latching current
22. Chopper control for DC motor provides vibration in
1. Input voltage           b. Frequency  c. both A and B          d. none of these
23. As per sampling theorem
1. The signal should be sampled at least twice each cycle of its lowest frequency
2. Twice each cycle of its highest frequency
3. Guard time should be as large as possible
4. Nyquist rate should as low as possible
24. In communication, the sampling technique leads to
1. Higher efficiency       b. higher speed of communication        c. cheaper communication   d. all of the above
25. In frequency modulation, if the frequency of the modulating voltage is doubled, the rate of deviation of carrier frequency
1. Doubles        b. becomes four times          c. becomes half                     d. remains unaltered
26. The drawback of FM relative to AM is that
1. Noise is very high for high modulation frequencies
2. Larger bandwidth is required
3. Higher modulating power is required
4. Higher output power is required
27. In pulse modulation system, the modulating signal controls the
1. Pulse amplitude                    b. pulse width          c. pulse spacing d. al of these
28. A PLL can be used to demodulate
1. PAM signals  b. PCM Signals         c. FM Signals           d. DSB-SC Signals
29. Modems are used for data transmission over telephone lines to
1. Increase the transmission capacity      b. improve noise performance        c. incorporate error control handling   d. eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
30. In a DM(Delta Modulation ) system, the granular (idling) noise occurs when the
1. Modulation signal increases rapidly           b. pulse rate decreases       c. modulating signal remains constant   d. pulse amplitude decreases
31. PCM systems require regenerative repeaters over long distances. The correct sequence of the operations which such a repeater performs is
1. Timing, equalization and decision making
2. Equalization, timing and decision making
3. Timing, thresholding (decision) and equalization
4. Thresholding, timing and equalization
32. The loading of telephone lines by inductances at uniform intervals is done to
1. Reduce attenuation           b. eliminate high frequencies c. reduce near end cross talk        d. reduce far end cross talk     
33. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of
1. Average waiting time            b. peak waiting time             c. grade of service  d. Erlongs
34. Which of the following requires a synchronizing signal?
1. Single channel PPM system       b. PAM                       c. PDM                       d. all of these
35. In a PCM system, the number of quantization levels are 16 and the maximum signal frequency is 4 KHz, the bit transmission rate is
1. 64 K bits/sec             b. 16 K bits/sec                    c. 32 K bits/sec                     d. 32 bits/sec
36. PAM signals can be demodulated by using a
1. Low pass filter(LPF) alone   b. a Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF       c. a differentiator followed by a LPF     d. a clipper circuit followed by a LPF
37. Microwave frequency range extends from
1. 3 MHz to 30 MHz       b. 30 MHz   c. 300 MHz to 300 GHz   d. 300 MHz to 3000MHz
38. Which of the following noise becomes important at microwave frequencies?
1. Short noise b. Flicker noise c. thermal noise                     d. transmit time noise
39. The advantage of microwave lower frequency signals are
1. Increased bandwidth            b. ability to use high gain, directive antenna  c. greater secrecy  d. all of these
40. When the free space wave length of a signal equals the cut-off wavelength of guide
1. Group velocity of the signal becomes zero
2. Phase velocity of the signal becomes infinite
3. Wavelength within the waveguide becomes infinite
4. All of above
41. When microwave signals follow the curvature of the earth, this is called
1. Ducting                     b. Farady effect         c. tropospheric scatter          d. ionospheric reflection
42. The wavelength of microwaves at 100 GHz will be
1. 3 cm    b. 3 mm         c. 0.03 cm      d. 0.3 m
43. Klystron oscillator may be used as
1. Signal source in microwave generator       b. local oscillator in microwave receiver     c. pump oscillator in parametric amplifier        d. all of these
44. TWT is basically a/an
1. Oscillator        b. Tuned Amplifier     c. wideband amplifier        d. audio amplifier
45. What is the main difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission
1. The bandwidth required is different
2. The pulse height is different
3. The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission
4. The clocking is mixed with data in asynchronous transmission
46. Satellite transponders
1. Use a higher frequency for reception of radiation from earth stations and lower frequency for transmission to earth stations
2. Use lower frequency for reception of radiation from earth stations and higher frequency for transmission to earth stations
3. Use a single frequency for reception and transmission from one point on earth to another
4. Are devices that echos the radiation without change from oen point on earth to another
47. What function does a serial interface perform in data communication?
1. Converts serial data into audio data signals
2. Converts analog signal into digital signal
3. Converts parallel data into a stream bites and vice-versa
4. All of these
48. The data rate of the ISDN Basic Rate Access D Channel is
1. 64 Kbps                    b. 16 Kbps     c. 8 Kbps        d. 144 Kbps
49. In a prototype low pass filter, the series and shunt elements are respectively
1. Capacitive and inductive      b. inductive and capacitive          c. capacitive and resistive   d. resistive and inductive
50. Mho relay is normally used for the protection of
1. Long transmission lines              b. medium length lines          c. short length lines  d. no length criterion
51. The leakage resistance of a 50 km long cable is 1 MΩ. For a 100Km long cable it will be
1. 1M Ω   b. 2 M Ω         c. 0.66M Ω     d. none of these
52. The effect of bonding the cable is to
1. Increase the effective resistance and inductance
2. Increase the effective resistance but reduce inductance
3. Decrease the effective resistance and inductance
4. Decrease the effective resistance but increase the inductance
53. The main advantage of ac transmission over dc transmission system is
1. Less insulation problems
2. Low losses in transmission power over long distances
3. Less instability problems
4. More economic as end use appliances are mostly AC powered
54. Constant voltage transmission has the advantage(s) of
1. Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the receiving end
2. Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of higher terminal reactance
3. Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size in case of long distance heavy power transmission
4. All of these
55. For a distortion less transmission line where G is the shunt conductance between two conductors.
1. RL=GC           b. RC=GL      c. RG=LC       d. RLGC=0
56. Which of the following statement is not correct?
1. It is not possible to have precise measurement which are not accurate
2. Correctness in measurement requires both accuracy and precision
3. Reproducibility and consistency are expressions that best describe precision in measurements
4. An instrument with 2% accuracy is better than another with 5% accuracy
57. A wattmeter has a full scale range of 2500 W. It has an error ±1% of true value. If true power is 1250 W , range of reading will be
1. 1225 W – 1275 W                b. 1245 W – 1255 W     c. 1200 W – 1300 W  d. 1237.5 W – 1262.5 W
58. If two 300 V full-scale voltmeters V1 & V2 having sensitivities of 100 k Ω / v and 150 k Ω/v are connected in series to measure 500 V then
1. V1 and V2 will read 250 V each                 b. V1 will read 200V and V2 will read 300 V     c. V1 will read 300 V and V2 will read 200 V            d. V1 and V2 will read 0
59. Hysteresis in an instrument means
1. Repeatability of the instrument
2. Reliability of the instrument
3. Change in same reading when input is first increased and then decreased
4. Inaccuracy due to change in temperature
60. A digital volt meter measures
1. Peak value     b. peak-to-peak value           c. rms value    d. average value
61. In a digital voltmeter, the Oscillator frequency is 400 kHz and ramp voltage falls from 8 V to 0 V in 20msec. The number of pulses counted by the counter is
1. 800     b. 2000                       c. 4000                       d. 8000
62. Digital instruments have input impedance of the order of
1. 1 Ω      B. k Ω   C. M Ω          D. m Ω
63. Q-factor of Q-Meter is
1. ω₀ R/L                        b. LR/ ω_{0           c.} ω₀L/R          d. none of these
64. Range of an analog transducer is 0-10 V. For a resolution of 5 mV, the bits of ADC will be
1. 8          b. 9      c. 10    d. 11
2.  
65. Backlash is
1. Unwanted signal tending to obscure the transducer signal
2. Maximum angle or distance through which any part of mechanical system may be moved in one direction without causing motion of the next part
3. Departure of instrument output from its calibrated value
4. All of these
66. In a closed loop control system
1. Control action depends on the output and also on the input command
2. Output signal is feedback to be compared with reference signal
3. Accuracy is better than in open loop system
4. All of these
67.  A servo system must have
1. Feedback system     b.  power amplifier to amplify error  c. capacity to control position or its derivative       d. All of these
68. The main drawback of a feedback system is
1. Inaccuracy      b. inefficiency c. insensitivity            d. instability
69. In a second order system, if the damping factor ε is less than unity , the system will be
1. Under damped        b. over damped         c. critically damped   d. freely oscillating
70. The most suitable method for determining the stability and transient response of a system is
1. Bode plot       b. Root locus           c. Nyquist criterion    d. Routh Hurwitz criterion
71. For Type three system , the lowest frequency asymptote will have the slope of
1. -20dB/octave b. -6 dB/octave          c. -12 dB/octave        d. -18 dB/octave
72. Excessive noise in a control system may result in
1. Reduction in gain      b. reduction in bandwidth     c. oscillations                         d. saturation in amplifying stages
73. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
1. Highly stable              b. Highly oscillatory           c. relatively stable      d. none of these
74. How many address lines are needed to address each memory location in a 2048 X 4 memory chip?
1. 10        b. 11   c. 12    d. 18
75. The bus which is used to transfer data from main memory to peripheral device is the
1. Data bus        b. Input bus     c. DMA bus   d. Output bus
76. RISC is characterized by
1. Hardware Control design with no micro codes
2. Fixed instruction format
3. Several general purpose registers and large cache memories which support very fast access of data                        d. All of the above
77. The microprocessor contains ROM chip which contains
1. Control Function        b. Arithmetic Functions         c. Instructions to execute data   d. Memory Functions
78. An assembler for a microprocessor is used for
1. Assembly of processors in a production line
2. Creation of new programs using different modules
3. Translation of a program from assembly language to machine language
4. Translation of a higher level language into English text.
79. A Language developed to assist children in learning geometric shapes and computing is
1. COBOL          b. BASIC        c. LOGO         d. LISP
80. The process of accessing data stored in a tape is similar to manipulating data on
1. Stack              b. Queue       c. List  d. heap
81. Which of the following chips can be reprogrammed with special electric pulses?
1. EPROM                      b. PROM        c. ROM                       d. EEPROM
82. A computer program that translates one program instruction at a time into machine language is called
1. Interpreter    b. CPU           c. compiler     d. Simulator
83. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
1. Cache Memory        b. Magnetic Bubble Memory            c. Magnetic Core Memory   d. RAM
84. Linkage between the CPU and users is provided by
1. Peripheral Devices            b. Storage      c. Control Unit            d. Software
85. Which of following typically uses a keyboard for input
1. Desktop Terminal     b. Point of Sale terminal       c. Financial Transaction terminal   D. All of these
86. How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard?
1. Three             b. Four            c. Two d. Seven
87. Layer Four of the OSI model is
1. Physical layer            b. Link layer   c. Transport Layer  d. Network Layer
88. The TCP/IP protocol which is used for remote terminal connection service is
1. TELNET                    b. FTP            c. RARP         d. UDP
89. Which of the Following protocol is used for transferring files from one machine to another?
1. RARP b. ARP            c. TCP            D. FTP
90. A transparent DBMS
1. Cannot hide sensitive information from users
2. Keeps its logical structure hidden from users
3. Keeps its physical structure hidden from users
4. Both B) and C) above

 Thanks n Regards

  Rajesh 

  TTA Bangalore